David B. Curtis

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The End Is Near

1 Peter 4:7

Delivered 07/06/25

Good morning, Bereans. We are continuing our study of 1 Peter this morning and will be focusing on the first part of verse 7 of chapter 4. Please keep in mind that Peter has been talking about living righteously in the midst of suffering, even suffering that leads to death when considering verse 7.

The end of all things is at hand; therefore, be self-controlled and sober-minded for the sake of your prayers.  1 Peter 4:7 ESV

Most translations omit the connective particle that links verse 7 with verse 6. It should read, "Now or, but the end of all things is near" as we see in the American Standard Version.

But the end of all things is at hand: be ye therefore of sound mind, and be sober unto prayer:  1 Peter 4:7 ASV

Peter has just mentioned how Christ is ready to judge the living and the dead.

but they will give account to him who is ready to judge the living and the dead.  1 Peter 4:5 ESV

If you are familiar with your Bible, you know that the jt takes place at the second coming.

Now concerning the coming of our Lord Yeshua Christ and our being gathered together to him, we ask you, brothers, not to be quickly shaken in mind or alarmed, either by a spirit or a spoken word, or a letter seeming to be from us, to the effect that the day of the Lord has come. 2 Thessalonians 2:1-2 ESV

In these two verses, we see the big three of eschatology: the Parousia, the Resurrection and the Jt. These are synchronous events. If the Day of the Lord had come, so had the Resurrection and the Parousia. While different passages emphasize different aspects of these events, the overall biblical narrative suggests that the Second Coming, the resurrection, and the jt would occur concurrently at the time of end.

"End of all things"—the word "end" here is from the Greek telos. Telos means an end, a completion, a consummation. The word termination is close but misses the fundamental meaning because a process can be terminated without reaching completion or consummation, the essence of the term telos.

For I tell you that this Scripture must be fulfilled in me: 'And he was numbered with the transgressors.' For what is written about me has its fulfillment."  Luke 22:37 ESV

Telos here denotes the "fulfillment" of prophecy about Yeshua.

Telos is used in Scripture to refer to the end of the age. Yeshua Himself used the term in the following way:

And you will hear of wars and rumors of wars. See that you are not alarmed, for this must take place, but the end is not yet.  Matthew 24:6 ESV

We know he is talking here about the end of the age. Notice the opening verses of this Ma

Yeshua left the temple and was going away, when his disciples came to point out to him the buildings of the temple. But he answered them, "You see all these, do you not? Truly, I say to you, there will not be left here one stone upon another that will not be thrown down." As he sat on the Mount of Olives, the disciples came to him privately, saying, "Tell us, when will these things be, and what will be the sign of your coming and of the end of the age?" Matthew 24:1-3 ESV

We could put the disciples' threefold question this way: "When will the temple be destroyed and what will be the sign of your presence in power and glory as Messiah and of the end of the Jewish age?"

We must remember that in this discourse the Lord is answering the disciple's questions about the destruction of the Jewish temple, the sign of His presence, and the end of the age. We must fight the temptation to read this as if it was written to us in the twenty-first century. Yeshua is speaking to his disciples in the first century, and we must study it in that context. Audience Relevance is something we must always keep in mind as we read and study the Bible. We must ask the question: "What did this mean to the original audience?"

I said all of that to say that Yeshua uses telos to speak of the end of the Jewish age.

The sense of "end" as a point in time appears also in.

and he will reign over the house of Jacob forever, and of his kingdom there will be no end."  Luke 1:33 ESV

The kingdom of Messiah has no "end," no telos.  So, telos has the idea of a goal achieved, or a result attained, or a purpose consummated. It has the idea of fulfillment realized, of ultimate destiny. It's not just the end of something; it is the culmination, the conclusion, the success, the goal, the realization, the fulfillment, the consummation. So, he says, the consummation of all things is at hand.

What does Peter mean, then, by the "End of all things"? David Pratte writes,

It should be clear that the word "all" cannot possibly be used in an unlimited way here. Would the end of heaven be at hand? What about love, the Scriptures, angels, etc.? Yet, it is not clear to me what else Peter may be referring to when he says the end of all things is at hand. One possibility is that he refers to the fall of Jerusalem and therefore the end of the power of Judaism. This explanation would certainly fit the language, and it would help explain why their times of persecution might be coming to a close. Much of the persecution that Christians suffered in the first century came at the hands of Jews, as described in the book of Acts. When Judaism fell, this would relieve a significant portion of the suffering to which Peter refers.

It is my understanding that Peter was stating that the end of all things prophesied, the end of the Jewish age, and the end of the Jewish system were near. With the destruction of the Jewish Temple, all prophecy was fulfilled.

"But when you see Jerusalem surrounded by armies, then know that its desolation has come near. Then let those who are in Judea flee to the mountains, and let those who are inside the city depart, and let not those who are out in the country enter it, for these are days of vengeance, to fulfill all that is written. Luke 21:20-22 ESV

Luke tells us here that ALL things which are written will be fulfilled in the destruction of Jerusalem. What does he mean by that? "All that is written" refers to prophecy. All prophecy was to be fulfilled in the destruction of Jerusalem.

John McArthur, commenting on "the end of all things is at hand," writes, "And the consummation of all things points directly to the Second Coming of Jesus Christ. It must refer to that. It can't refer to anything less than that, for that and that alone is when all things are consummated."

Most all commentators and scholars agree that "the end of all things is at hand" is talking about the Second Coming of Christ. So, Peter is declaring that the Second Coming of Christ was at hand. "The end of all things is at hand"—"is at hand" is from the Greek word eggizo (in the perfect tense), which literally means "is about to arrive, or has come near." This phrase "at hand" introduces a state of affairs which is already beginning. We see this same Greek word used in Malachi 4.

From that time Yeshua began to preach, saying, "Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand."  Matthew 4:17 ESV

Was the coming kingdom thousands of years away? In Matthew chapter 10, Yeshua called his twelve disciples together and commissioned them to go throughout Israel preaching the message that "the kingdom of heaven is at hand." (Mt. 10:7).

And proclaim as you go, saying, 'The kingdom of heaven is at hand.'  Matthew 10:7 ESV

The content of their message was identical to the message of Yeshua and John before him. Now notice what Yeshua says in Matthew 12

But if it is by the Spirit of God that I cast out demons, then the kingdom of God has come upon you.  Matthew 12:28 ESV

If there is any doubt that the kingdom of God had arrived in an inaugural sense with the first advent of Christ. Yeshua swept it aside by proclaiming that the kingdom of God "has come upon you." The words "has come upon" are the Greek word ephthasen, which suggests an arrival which catches unaware. The only logical conclusion was that the kingdom of God had come in the first century. It was near.

Notice how Yeshua uses eggizo in Matthew.

Then he came to the disciples and said to them, "Sleep and take your rest later on. See, the hour is at hand, [eggizo] and the Son of Man is betrayed into the hands of sinners. Rise, let us be going; see, my betrayer is at hand." [eggizo] Matthew 26:45-46 ESV

Now notice verse 47.

While he was still speaking, Judas came, one of the twelve, and with him a great crowd with swords and clubs, from the chief priests and the elders of the people.  Matthew 26:47 ESV

Yeshua tells his sleeping disciples, "Rise, let us be going. See, My betrayer is at hand [eggizo]." And "while He was still speaking," Judas came up to betray him.

"But when you see Jerusalem surrounded by armies, then know that its desolation has come near.  Luke 21:20 ESV

Was Jerusalem's desolation thousands of years away? Look at what James stated.

You also, be patient. Establish your hearts, for the coming of the Lord is at hand.  James 5:8 ESV

When Peter wrote that the end of all things was near, he was referring to the Second Coming. The coming of the Lord was near. Whom were these writers addressing? Were they saying this to us? No, they were writing to first-century saints. Therefore, the coming and the end of the age were near to those living in the first century. This seems so simple and self-explanatory, yet most Christians miss it and are still, two thousand years later, looking for the coming of Christ.

John Piper writes that "Interpreters with less confidence in the Scriptures have sometimes concluded that the apostles simply made a mistake when they said things like this—the end of all things at hand. The end is near, they said, but the end was over two thousand years away. So, they made a mistake—the argument goes."

Who is making a mistake—the inspired Apostles or modern-day believers?

John McArthur, in his exposition of 1 Peter 4:7, writes, "First Thessalonians was written to a faithful church and you'll remember that he commended them because they were waiting for Jesus Christ from heaven. There they were 2,000 years ago and they then were waiting for Jesus Christ… You say, Well, how could they be waiting then and we waiting now? When is He going to come? Well, in Acts 1:7 here are the words of Jesus, 'It is not for you to know times or seasons which the Father has fixed by His own authority.' Bottom line, God hasn't chosen to tell us when Jesus will come."

What? Does he know his Bible at all? The very text he is talking about says the end was "near"! Near to the people he was writing to in the first century. The Bible over and over gives us time indicators as to when the Second Coming was to be. The Lord made it very clear that he was going to return in the lifetime of his disciples.

For the Son of Man is going to come with his angels in the glory of his Father, and then he will repay each person according to what he has done. Truly, I say to you, there are some standing here who will not taste death until they see the Son of Man coming in his kingdom. Matthew 16:27-28 ESV

Verse 27 clearly speaks of the second coming. He comes with the angels to reward every man. Who are the "YOU" of verse 28? Verse 24 tells us that Yeshua is speaking to his disciples. So, Yeshua is saying this to his disciples who were standing right in front of Him.

What are the possible explanations for this verse? I see only three. If you have others, I would be willing to hear them.

(1) There are still some of the disciples alive today. I do not think I could convince

any of you of that one.

(2) Yeshua was confused or lying. I hope I could not convince any of you of that one.

(3) Hang on! Yeshua actually did what he said and came in the lifetime of his disciples. I would like to convince all of you of this one. This seems like the simple and clear answer that holds to the inspiration of Scripture. Yeshua did what he said he would do. I am very comfortable with that. How about you?

Do you know why Christians reject the idea that Yeshua did what he said he would do? They reject it because their view of the Second Coming is an earth-burning end-of- the-world event which obviously hasn't happened.

Later, in Matthew 24:34, Yeshua says that this generation would see the second coming. So, we know it was to happen within forty years, a biblical generation. But speaking of the second coming, Yeshua also said

"But concerning that day or that hour, no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father." Mark 13:32 ESV

Many today use this verse to prove that we have no knowledge of the time of a future-to-us second coming of Christ. But "that day" refers to the passing away of the heavens and earth which was the destruction of Jerusalem and the Old Covenant. Yeshua had already told them, in verse 34, that it would happen in their generation (forty years or so). But they did not know the "day or hour" that it would happen.

When a woman gets pregnant, we know that in about forty weeks she is going to have a baby. We don't know the day or hour, but we can know that it will happen in about forty weeks. That is exactly what Yeshua is saying here. And it is quite interesting that the time prior to the consummation of the kingdom is often referred to as birth pangs.

The Scripture frequently makes it clear that the second coming of Christ was to happen in the first century. It was always spoken of as being soon. It was to happen quickly--before all of those of that generation died. Look at what James told his readers.

Be patient, therefore, brothers, until the coming of the Lord. See how the farmer waits for the precious fruit of the earth, being patient about it, until it receives the early and the late rains. You also, be patient. Establish your hearts, for the coming of the Lord is at hand. Do not grumble against one another, brothers, so that you may not be judged; behold, the Judge is standing at the door. James 5:7-9 ESV

James was communicating to them about the coming of the Lord. He told them to be patient because the coming of the Lord was at hand. At hand is from the Greek word eggizo which means near or at hand. Then he stated that the Judge was standing at the door. The word for door here is thura. Matthew shows us what this word means.

So also, when you see all these things, you know that he is near, at the very gates. Matthew 24:33 ESV

Gates here is thura, the same word used in James 5:9. The Lord's standing at the door meant that his coming was near (eggus).

In the context of James 5, we have Christians who are suffering under the persecutions of the Jews. In the midst of it, they are told to be patient until the coming of the Lord. Futurists would have us believe that in just 2,000 plus years after James penned those words, the Lord is to come and help them. I cannot see how that would be of much comfort to James and those of his day. Let's say that you are suffering; you are being persecuted for your faith. You have lost your job, your landlord is about to evict you, and you have no food to feed your hungry family. You receive a letter from a rich relative who tells you to "hang in there, brother, I will be there soon to help." When would you expect him to come? He said soon, and you would justifiably look for him soon!

John McArthur writes, "James, writing to persecuted believers who are going through some very, very difficult times, says to them in verse 7, 'Be patient therefore, brethren, until the coming of the Lord.' Well, was the Lord coming in their life time? As it turned out, He didn't. They nonetheless lived in that expectancy. He says in verse 8, 'Be patient, strengthen your hearts for the coming of the Lord is,' there's that same idea, 'at hand, near, imminent, soon.'"

What on earth does "at hand and soon" mean?

For, "Yet a little while, and the coming one will come and will not delay; Hebrews 10:37 ESV

"For yet a little while." The Greek here is very expressive and emphatic. The author used a word which signifies "a little while," but then for further emphasis, he added a particle meaning "very." He intensified it even more by repeating it, thus literally rendering this clause as: "For yet a very, very little while, and He that shall come will come."

Lenski states: "To charge Paul or Peter with false prophecy for saying 1900 years ago that the end is near, is to treat them unfairly. They, as we, had to live in constant expectation of Christ's sudden return." [Richard C. H. Lenski, The Interpretation of the Epistles of St. Peter, St. John, and St. Jude, p. 193.]

Bob Utley writes: "An immediate return seems to be the perspective of the authors of the NT. What has happened? First, let us remember that time is only significant to those involved in it. God is not slow, but also God is above time. The immediate prospect of the Parousia is a real encouragement to Christlike living in every age, especially amidst severe persecution."

When the Bible says that Christ was coming soon, whom was it talking to? God? No, the Bible is written to men and to men soon means soon. It cannot mean over two thousand years later.

Greg Brown, who has a PhD in theology and is the teaching pastor at Handong International Congregation located in Pohang, South Korea, writes: "When Peter says 'the end is near', he was essentially saying there is nothing keeping Christ back from returning at any moment. This was the early church's blessed hope that helped enable them to endure the sufferings they were experiencing in the world. Christ could return at any time. Even though it has been 2000 years since this was written, it is still as true for us today as it was then. In fact, it is truer because we are closer to Christ's coming."

So, it was near to them and 2000 years later it is still near to us?

Greg Brown states: "In this context, where the believers were being mocked, ridiculed and burned at the stake, he comforts them with 'the end of all things is near'. Christ is coming soon. The consummation of human history, where God will judge both the righteous and the unrighteous, where God will correct all things, and usher in a rule of righteousness is near. This should comfort believers and enable them to persevere through difficult times." THIS IS A MOCKERY OF THESE SUFFERING BELIEVERS.

Look at what Paul says to the Thessalonians who were suffering for their faith.

This is evidence of the righteous jt of God, that you may be considered worthy of the kingdom of God, for which you are also suffering— since indeed God considers it just to repay with affliction those who afflict you, and to grant relief to you who are afflicted as well as to us, when the Lord Yeshua is revealed from heaven with his mighty angels 2 Thessalonians 1:5-7 ESV

The Lord is going to "repay with affliction those who afflict you." Yahweh is a God of vengeance. The Greek text suggests that it is just in God's sight to recompense the persecutors with affliction.

"And to grant relief to you who are afflicted as well as to us"—the word "relief" here is from the Greek word anesis which means "relaxation or (figuratively) relief: - eased, liberty, rest." In the New Testament it commonly denotes relief from some type of affliction. To whom is this promise of relief given? "You who are afflicted." Clearly, it is promised to the first-century Thessalonians. Paul says that "God is going to repay with affliction those who afflict you and give YOU that are afflicted rest."

"As well as to us"—Paul says God will give rest to US as well. From this, it is clear that the apostolic circle was also suffering persecution.

Do you think that the believers in Thessalonica saw this as good news? This gave them hope in the midst of their suffering. Relief was coming. Do you think that Paul was giving them false hope?

When will the unbelievers receive jt and the believers get rest? "When the Lord Yeshua is revealed from heaven"literally "at the revelation of the Lord Yeshua." In the other texts in these letters that speak of the coming of the Lord Yeshua, the author refers to the event as the parousia (1 Thess. 2:19; 3:13; 4:15; 5:23; 2 Thess. 2:1), but here it is described as his "revelation." There is no verb. Apocalypsis means "to clearly reveal." This refers to the Second Coming of Yeshua.

The time of God's righteous jt will be the Second Coming/Resurrection Day/Jt Day.

This is what John says in Revelation.

"Behold, I am coming soon, bringing my recompense with me, to repay each one for what he has done. Revelation 22:12 ESV

Yeshua was to "repay" at the second coming.

So, Paul is telling the suffering first-century believers at Thessalonica that God will give them relief from their suffering at the second coming of their Lord Yeshua the Christ in their lifetime. But it would have meant nothing to them, in fact, it would have been deceptive and cruel for Paul to teach them that relief from their suffering would come at His appearing if the second coming was thousands of years in their future.

John McArthur states:"'Is at hand' I believe refers to immanency [sic]. That is, the coming of Christ is imminent; the next event can happen at any time. It is near. Peter is reminding them then that they are to live in anticipation of the nearness of the return of Jesus Christ. We could say that they are to live with, here's the word, expectancy. Do you realize that every generation since then has therefore lived in that same expectancy?"

Dr. Thomas L. Constable writes, "Like the other apostles, Peter believed the return of Jesus Christ was imminent (i.e., it could occur at any moment; cf. James 5:8; Rom. 13:11; Heb. 9:28; 1 John 2:18)."

The Bible didn't tell the first-century readers that Christ's coming was imminent, The inspired writers clearly taught that it was to happen soon (quickly). It was at hand while some of them were still alive (i.e., in their generation).  The judge was standing at the door because it was "the last hour" (1 John 2:18).  

Many commentators wrongly contend that two thousand years removed from the first century the coming of Christ is still imminent. How can the return of Christ be imminent if there are several events that must happen first? The Merriam-Webster dictionary defines imminent as "ready to take place: happening soon." It cannot be imminent if there are things that must happen before it can happen. Have we totally given up on logic?

How can Christ's coming be imminent when Matthew 24 talks about the coming of Christ in the destruction of Jerusalem? The disciples connected the fall of the Temple, the end of the age, and the Parousia. How could the destruction of the temple be imminent today when there is no temple to destroy?

But when you see Jerusalem surrounded by armies, then know that its desolation has come near. Then let those who are in Judea flee to the mountains, and let those who are inside the city depart, and let not those who are out in the country enter it, for these are days of vengeance, to fulfill all that is written. Luke 21:20-22 ESV

Christ is talking to real people in the first century. This is referring to the coming of Christ, as we see in verse 27.

And then they will see the Son of Man coming in a cloud with power and great glory. Now when these things begin to take place, straighten up and raise your heads, because your redemption is drawing near. Luke 21:27-28 ESV

The coming of the Son of Man and the destruction of the Temple were to happen in the same time frame, and they both were near. How, then, is the coming of Christ imminent today when no temple now exists to be destroyed? Does not the Temple have to be rebuilt so it can be destroyed? But there is a problem. The Temple site is now occupied by the Mosque of Omar (the Dome of the Rock). It is the center of the Muslim worship (the third holiest place in Islam after Mecca and Medina). There is going to have to be a huge Muslim-Israelite war which the Israelites must win. Then they will have to tear down the Mosque in order to rebuild the Temple. Considering the long time frame such events would require, how can His return be considered imminent?

John MacArthur writes,

It always bothers me that you can talk to people who are very precise about their understanding of the Bible, very precise about their understanding of theology. When you ask them a question about eschatology – that's from eschatos, which means the end or the last – when you ask them about the last things and how the story ends, they don't have a clue.

It's seriously disturbing to me that so many don't care about how the story ends. Why do you think the whole book of Revelation was written? So that you could know how the story ends and so that you can join in the praise that is going on in heaven in Revelation 4 and 5. I'm glad I know how God ends the story and I can praise Him for what is coming.

Talk about being precise with eschatology. The author of Revelation told his readers that everything he wrote about was to happen soon. If you pay attention to what the book actually says, it is clear that it is talking about something that was to happen in the first century.

The revelation of Yeshua the Christ, which God gave him to show to his servants the things that must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John, who bore witness to the word of God and to the testimony of Yeshua the Christ, even to all that he saw. Blessed is the one who reads aloud the words of this prophecy, and blessed are those who hear, and who keep what is written in it, for the time is near. Revelation 1:1-3 ESV

To whom was the book of Revelation written? Most Christians today think it was written to them. They act as though it is a newspaper that just arrived. But John tells us to whom he is writing—the seven churches in Asia Minor.

John to the seven churches that are in Asia: Grace to you and peace from him who is and who was and who is to come, and from the seven spirits who are before his throne, Revelation 1:4 ESV

These were seven real churches that existed in Asia Minor in the first century. John names them in chapter 1.

I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and I heard behind me a loud voice like a trumpet saying, "Write what you see in a book and send it to the seven churches, to Ephesus and to Smyrna and to Pergamum and to Thyatira and to Sardis and to Philadelphia and to Laodicea." Revelation 1:10-11 ESV

Notice that John is not told to send it to the church in Virginia Beach, VA in the twenty-first century. This book was to be sent to the seven churches in first-century Asia Minor.

To the church in Thyatira Yeshua said:

Only hold fast what you have until I come. Revelation 2:25 ESV

Yeshua told the believers in the church of Thyatira, in the first century, to "hold fast what you have until I come." He doesn't say, "Hold fast until you die." If language means anything, that means that he would come in their lifetime, would it not? Most commentators of Revelation violate the basic hermeneutical principle of audience relevance.

In Revelation 1:1, John specifically states that the prophecies of Revelation would begin to take place in a very SHORT TIME.

The revelation of Yeshua the Christ, which God gave him to show to his servants the things that must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John, Revelation 1:1 ESV

He emphasized this truth of a soon coming in a variety of ways through language. He carefully varies the manner of his expressions as if to avoid any potential confusion on the matter. The Greek word translated "soon" in Revelation 1:1 is tachos. According to Arndt and Gingrich Lexicon, tachos is used in the LXX and certain non-canonical writings to mean "speed, quickness, swiftness, haste." John uses the same word in Revelation 2:16; 3:11; 22:6, 7, 12, 20. John also uses the Greek word engus which is translated "near" in Revelation 1:3 and 22:10.

Blessed is the one who reads aloud the words of this prophecy, and blessed are those who hear, and who keep what is written in it, for the time is near. Revelation 1:3 ESV

This term speaks of temporal nearness, and John uses it to bracket the book. The third Greek word is mello. It is translated as "about to" in Revelation 1:19 and 3:10. The phrase in 1:19 is literally rendered as "the things which are about to occur."

Write therefore the things that you have seen, those that are and those that are to take place after this. Revelation 1:19 ESV

Mello also occurs in 3:10.

Because you have kept my word about patient endurance, I will keep you from the hour of trial that is coming on the whole world, to try those who dwell on the earth. Revelation 3:10 ESV

The verse should read "is about to come upon the whole world." If we apply the principle of audience relevance, what would the original readers have thought when they read this? John strategically places these words at the introduction and conclusion of the book. John was telling the seven churches to expect these things at any moment.

So, based upon these time statements and many others, I believe that Yeshua came in AD 70. The book of Revelation ends with the same time statements that it began with.

And he said to me, "These words are trustworthy and true. And the Lord, the God of the spirits of the prophets, has sent his angel to show his servants what must soon take place." "And behold, I am coming soon. Blessed is the one who keeps the words of the prophecy of this book." Revelation 22:6-7 ESV
And he said to me, "Do not seal up the words of the prophecy of this book, for the time is near." Revelation 22:10 ESV
"Behold, I am coming soon, bringing my recompense with me, to repay each one for what he has done. Revelation 22:12 ESV

Five times in the last 16 verses he tells the seven churches in Asia Minor that he is going to come very soon to them. These ending verses should be very difficult for a partial preterist. The time statements bracket this book and cover everything in the book including the second coming, the jt, and the resurrection. It was ALL to happen soon for the first-century audience.

The bottom line is that when Peter wrote this epistle, the end of all things was at hand. This would have encouraged the believers. Their suffering at the hand of the Jews would soon be over. The Lord's coming was to be soon.

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